Admittedly, this is less a story than a question, but there’s enough wildness here to qualify for this sub.
My wife and I have somewhat of a recurring joke. She loves to point out that on our first date nearly 19 years ago, though I tried, she did not let me go down on her. She likes to say that this is the reason we ended up together and that if she gave it up on the first night, the relationship wouldn’t have gone anywhere. I insist that it wouldn’t have made a bit of difference to me and I would have pursued her whether our first date ended in only a kiss, oral, or full-on intercourse.
Fortunately, we enjoy a very open line of communication about sex and our past experiences. So in that spirit, I told her that, while I did not have intercourse with a great number of women before her, it was very common for women I met in college in the mid-nineties – early-2000’s, to let me go down on them and for them to go down on me (or 69) after the first date (or in the case of a bar/party, the same night). My wife responded, “Wow, you met a lot of sluts before me.” I said that I didn’t necessarily think they were promiscuous just because we engaged oral on the first date. Maybe having intercourse on the first date, that I could see as being a little promiscuous, but oral/69-ing struck me as being more tame.
Maybe she’s right because I have to say, none of these women who let me go down on them/blew me on the first date/meeting ever materialized into a girlfriend, but I thought I’d put it to you kind people. For the ’90’s – early-2000’s, was it ‘slutty’ for women to do oral on the first date/meeting?
Source: reddit.com/r/gonewildstories/comments/t54na4/settle_this_question_between_me_and_my_wife
No. And even sex. On several occasions I had sex on the first date and it never affected the duration of my relationships. Actually, I had sex on my first date with my wife. For me, it makes no difference whatsoever.